1. In which of these situations would an agoraphobic be most likely to exhibit avoidance or fear? a.
1. In which
of these situations would an agoraphobic be most likely to exhibit avoidance or
fear?
a. touching
an insect
b. swimming
in a backyard pool
c. being at
the top of a tall building
d. sitting
in the middle of a row in a crowded theater
2. Anxiety
is a reaction to
a. avoidance.
b. impaired
insight.
c. anticipated
future problems.
d. an
immediate threat from the environment.
3. Which of
the following is one of the DSM-5 criteria used to identify panic attack?
a. shows
gradual build-up over several days
b. reaches
peak intensity within 10 minutes
c. involves
a blend of several negative emotions
d. involves
preoccupation with words rather than images
4. Which of
the following is appropriately matched?
a. acrophobia:
fear of heights
b. claustrophobia:
fear of open spaces
c. altaphobia:
fear of flying
d. hemophobia:
fear of insects
5. Fear is
not considered phobic unless
a. the
person avoids contact with the source of the fear or experiences intense
anxiety in the presence of the feared stimulus.
b. the fear
is generalized to more than one stimulus.
c. the
person has a failed attempt to repress the fear.
d. the
person experiences a parasympathetic storm.
6. What are
compulsions?
a. a type of
obsession
b. normal
feelings of drive
c. intrusive,
unwanted thoughts
d. irrational,
repetitive behaviors
7. How do
clinical obsessions differ from normal obsessions?
a. They
differ in degree rather than kind.
b. Clinical
obsessions are more visually oriented.
c. The
content of the reported images is different.
d. Clinical
obsessions are more likely to be acted upon.
8. Amy loves
collecting coffee mugs and has been collecting them for years. At the drop of a
hat, she will launch into a discussion of her collection, the price of mugs,
and her plans for purchasing more mugs. Her friends say she must have
obsessive-compulsive disorder. You disagree. What do you say to her friends
when they ask why you disagree?
a. Unlike an
obsessive-compulsive, Amy derives pleasure from this activity.
b. Although
Amy experiences anxiety, it is the result of a deep-seated conflict.
c. Amy is
actually suffering from depression, which she hides by engaging in mug
collecting.
d. Obsessive-compulsive
disorder is an inherited disorder and there is no evidence that other family
members have the disorder.
9. Bill
worries about a long list of concerns. He finds himself constantly thinking
about these topics at work, when he exercises, and as he tries to sleep. He is
easily fatigued, can’t concentrate, and is often restless. He has been worrying
like this for the past year. Bill seems to meet the criteria for the diagnosis
of
a. agoraphobia.
b. social
phobia.
c. generalized
anxiety disorder.
d. obsessive-compulsive
disorder.
10. What is an
essential element of the diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a. The
obsessions develop in response to the compulsions.
b. The
person engages in compulsions, which increases anxiety.
c. The
person’s sleep is disrupted by nightmares.
d. The
person tries to ignore, suppress, or neutralize the unwanted thoughts or
impulses.
11. How does
the prevalence of anxiety disorders among the elderly compare to the prevalence
among other age groups?
a. The
prevalence rate is lower among the elderly.
b. The
highest prevalence rates are found among the elderly.
c. The
prevalence rates are virtually identical across the life span.
d. Whether
the rates are high or low depends on both age and gender.
12. In Western
societies anxiety is most frequently associated with work performance, whereas
in non-Western societies, anxiety is most frequently associated with
a. family or
religious concerns.
b. personal
appearance.
c. intimate
relationships.
d. educational
achievement.
13. The
preparedness model of phobic acquisition holds that phobias develop in response
to
a. stimuli
to which the person has had little exposure.
b. objects
with symbolic associations to sex and aggression.
c. any
neutral stimulus paired with an unconditioned stimulus.
d. objects
and situations that are fear-relevant.
14. Research
has consistently found evidence that problems with anxiety show up at high
rates in people who believe that
a. they are
in control of a situation.
b. they are
not in control of events.
c. events
are their fault.
d. important
people have treated them badly.
15. Several
lines of research have clarified the basic cognitive mechanisms involved in
generalized anxiety disorder, as well as in panic disorder. Experts now believe
that a factor that plays a crucial role in the onset of this process is
a. depression.
b. conditioned
responses.
c. the
hypothalamus.
d. attention.
16. A patient
with panic disorder tends to interpret the rapid beating of his heart as a
heart attack; a cognitive psychologist would call this
a. automatic
thinking.
b. catastrophic
misinterpretation.
c. illusion
of predictability.
d. “what-if”
thinking.
17. The two
different pathways in the brain involved in the detection of danger differ from
one another with respect to
a. their
roles in panic disorder versus specific phobia.
b. the
amount of conscious thinking and reasoning.
c. the
detection of reality-based versus unrealistic threats.
d. their
presence in humans versus lower animals.
18. An
inhibitory neurotransmitter that functions to reduce levels of anxiety is
called
a. MAO.
b. dopamine.
c. GABA.
d. glutamate.
19. Systematic
desensitization involves
a. suppression
of phobic thoughts.
b. insight
into unconscious motivations.
c. exposure
to the feared item while maintaining relaxation.
d. dampening
of physiological reactions with medication.
20. Flooding
refers to the
a. recovery
of repressed memories.
b. exposure
to highly feared objects.
c. rebound
effect after thought suppression.
d. side
effects of antianxiety medications.
21. Alex
suffers from agoraphobia, and while in treatment he is asked to repeatedly
confront places like crowded shopping malls and theaters that he has been
avoiding. The treatment he is receiving is
a. stimulus
generalization.
b. stimulus
discrimination.
c. situational
exposure.
d. avoidance
reconditioning.
22. Exposure
and response prevention is most effective in the treatment of
a. panic
attacks.
b. social
phobias.
c. generalized
anxiety disorder.
d. obsessive-compulsive
disorder.
23. Which
category contains the drugs known as benzodiazepines?
a. antimanic
b. antipsychotics
c. antidepressants
d. minor
tranquilizers
24. Which of
the following are examples of the benzodiazepine class of drugs?
a. Zoloft
and Paxil
b. Valium
and Xanax
c. Haldol
and Thorazine
d. Elavil
and Stelazine
25. Which of
the following drugs is the first-line treatment for panic disorder and social
anxiety?
a. antianxiety
drugs
b. anticonvulsants
c. barbiturates
d. SSRIs
26. Which of
the following is a good definition of dissociation?
a. separation
from loved ones
b. withdrawal
from intimate relationships and social isolation
c. disruption
of the mental processes of memory, consciousness, identity, and perception
d. the
disengagement of physiological from psychological processes
27. Which of
the following events would fit the DSM description of situations that could
lead to posttraumatic stress disorder?
a. The car
Ted was driving spun out of control and almost fell off a bridge; in the car,
Ted waited helplessly to be rescued.
b. While
driving on the interstate, Kevin passes the site of a serious bus accident that
is commemorated by a stone monument.
c. The
roller coaster ride was faster and had more turns than Alice had been told
before she agreed to go on the ride with her friends.
d. The
newspaper account of a bank robbery and the resulting gun fight between the
robbers and police contained more vivid details than Frank expected.
28. Your
textbook discusses the case of Stephanie, who is a victim of rape. For months
after her assault, Stephanie was constantly on the lookout for new threats.
This condition is called
a. hypersensitivity.
b. hypovigilance.
c. hypervigilance.
d. Korsokov’s
syndrome.
29. Marjorie
has just experienced a traumatic event; she is feeling cut off from herself and
her environment and reports feeling like a robot. A mental health professional
would say that Marjorie is experiencing
a. derealization.
b. depersonalization.
c. amnesia.
d. flashbacks.
30. Which of
the following variables predicted lower rates of posttraumatic stress disorder
in emergency workers after Hurricane Katrina?
a. hardiness
b. extraversion
c. responsibility
d. sensation
seeking
31. As a
clinician, you would be most concerned about the probability of posttraumatic
stress disorder in a victim of which of the following?
a. rape
b. natural
disaster
c. minor
car crash
d. expected
death of a loved one
32. A national
study found that approximately ___ percent of the people in the United States
suffered from PTSD at some point.
a. 2
b. 7
c. 12
d. 15
33. What is
the single most common traumatic event that can lead to PTSD?
a. rape
b. losing a
job
c. combat
exposure
d. sudden
unexpected death of a loved one
34. A person
with acute stress disorder is most likely to develop posttraumatic stress
disorder when
a. the
trauma is especially severe.
b. the
trauma involves the possibility of death.
c. symptoms
of numbing, depersonalization, and reliving the trauma are present.
d. the
person develops a complete amnesia for the traumatic event.
35. The
National Comorbidity Study found that the course of posttraumatic stress
disorder is best described as follows:
a. The
person fully recovers.
b. Symptoms
tend to diminish gradually.
c. Most
people with PTSD report symptoms of the disorder 10 years later.
d. PTSD
usually leads to severe alcohol and drug problems.
36. Research
on social factors and the risk of posttraumatic stress disorder suggests a role
of social support in the etiology of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD). It
was found that veterans
a. who
didn’t face the embarrassment of being treated as heroes had lower rates of
PTSD.
b. from
units that encouraged independence had lower rates of PTSD.
c. who did
not receive social support on their return had high rates of PTSD.
d. who had
high social support through the Veterans Administration still had high rates of
PTSD.
37. Twin
research shows that _______________ account(s) for IQ deficits that have been
mistakenly attributed to brain damage due to trauma.
a. preexisting
differences
b. damage
caused by drug treatment of the PTSD
c. abnormal
biological adaptations to stress
d. environmental
differences
38. Research
on social factors and the risk for PTSD focuses primarily on the nature of the
trauma, the individual’s level of exposure to it, and __________________.
a. genes
b. unconscious
disassociation
c. levels
of cortisol
d. the
availability of social support following the trauma
39. Following
September 11, New York City college students had lower rates of PTSD if they
were better at enhancing and suppressing emotional expression. This is an
example of what psychologist Edna Foa calls emotional processing, which
involves three key stages. Which of the following is one of her stages?
a. Victims
need to engage in specialized counseling as soon as possible after the event.
b. Victims
must engage emotionally with their traumatic memories.
c. Victims
need to find a way to forget about their chaotic experience.
d. Victims
must come to believe that the world is a terrible place.
40. When
people with PTSD are able to integrate the experience of trauma and find some
broader reason or higher value for enduring it, they are engaging in the task
of
a. emotional
reintegration.
b. meaning
making.
c. intellectualizing.
d. denying
the reality of their pain.
41. The term
given to positive changes resulting from trauma is
a. posttraumatic
growth.
b. hardiness.
c. integration.
d. meaning
making.
42. Which of
the following types of medication is most often prescribed for PTSD?
a. antianxiety
medications
b. antihypertensive
medications
c. antidepressant
medications
d. stimulant
medications
43. Jane has
been diagnosed with PTSD and has begun seeing a psychotherapist. Which of the
following will be the most important strategy for her therapist to employ to
achieve long-term benefit?
a. reexposure
to the traumatic event
b. stress-inoculation
training
c. emotional
distancing
d. reactivation
of defense mechanisms
44. Some
psychologists do not see hypnosis as an altered state of consciousness. How are
they likely to view being hypnotized?
a. a form of
depersonalization
b. a form of
dissociative amnesia
c. a sign
of predisposition to dissociation
d. a
response to suggestion and expectations
45. What is a
cause of dissociative amnesia?
a. malingering
b. brain
injury
c. emotional
distress
d. neurotransmitter
imbalance
46. One of the
greatest controversies in psychology today is the issue of recovered memories.
Some individuals argue that such memories reveal past sexual abuse; others
disagree. What is one of the concerns for those who raise questions about
recovered memories?
a. Therapists
may be suggesting the existence of such memories to their clients.
b. Many
people cannot tell the difference between reality and what they may have
dreamed.
c. Some
psychotic individuals are reporting their delusions as examples of claimed
sexual abuse.
d. Some clients
are deliberately creating memories of sexual abuse in order to sue individuals
against whom they have held grudges.
47. Neisser
and Harsch interviewed people about how they learned about the explosion of the
space shuttle Challenger, and what they were doing at the time. They
interviewed people at the time of the explosion, and then three years later.
What did they find at the three-year follow-up?
a. leading
questions led to false memories
b. hardly
anyone remembered what they were doing
c. about
one-third had vivid but inaccurate memories
d. nearly
everyone showed accurate memories of where they were
48. Multiple
personality disorder is now known as
a. depersonalization.
b. selective
amnesia.
c. dissociative
fugue.
d. dissociative
identity disorder.
49. To test
the role-playing hypothesis of dissociative identity disorder (DID), Nicholas
Spanos and colleagues conducted analogue experiments in which they asked
college students to play the role of an accused murderer. What have these
studies shown?
a. Role
playing causes dissociative identity disorder
b. The
symptoms of DID can be induced through hypnosis
c. The ease
of role-taking correlates with risk for DID
d. Most
individuals deny having a “hidden part,” even under hypnosis
50. Iatrogenesis
refers to
a. state-dependent
learning.
b. inability
to recognize faces.
c. emotional
reliving of past experiences.
d. treatment
that causes, not cures, a disorder.