56803

The Research Paper is a ten- to twelve-page paper (excluding title and references pages) that provides the student the opportunity to investigate a specific natural disaster topic, apply graduate-level critical thinking to the presentation of the information, and utilizes and synthesizes appropriate current research for your selected topic. The Research Paper utilizes professional healthcare knowledge and skills and applies those proficiencies to the context of quality improvement and risk management by developing a natural disaster strategic plan for community health: Mobilizing for Action through Planning and Partnerships (MAPP) Process. The three-part Strategic Disaster Plan will be developed in Weeks Two, Four, and Six.

What are the implications of implicit bias in health?

Now that you have taken havard IAT please provide your response to the question below.

What did u think about the idea of unconscious biases or stereotypes before you took the implicit attitude test(s)?

What was the experience of taking the test like?

How can this information be useful to you in your work in healthcare? For others you work with in healthcare?

What are the implications of implicit bias in health?

Format -APA
Font – 12
Double space.
Page 2

SCI 110 Midterm Week 6 Solutions

SCI 110 Midterm Week 6 Solutions

 

Name: _______________________________________ Date: _________________________

 

1. Which of the following is not considered a major physical science:

  a. Physics
  b. Astronomy
  c. Geology
  d. Biology
  e. Meteorology

 

 

 

2. The word science comes from the Latin word meaning

 

 

 

3. True or False: The most information about our environment comes to us through the sense of touch.

 

 

4. A quantitative observation that is the basis of scientific investigation is a(n)

  a. experiment.
  b. measurement.
  c. explanation.
  d. number.

 

 

 

5. A scientific law describes

  a. the scientific method.
  b. a fundamental relationship of nature.
  c. the behavior of nature.
  d. an experiment.

 

 

6. In a one or two sentence, explain what is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory.

 

 

 

 

7. A standard unit

  a. is the same in all systems of units.
  b. may not be fixed in value.
  c. is found only in the British system.
  d. is used for taking accurate measurements.
  e. is found only in the metric system.

 

 

 

 

 

8. The standard unit of time is the

  a. hour.
  b. day.
  c. second.
  d. minute.

 

 

9. Which has a larger volume, a liter of water or a liter of mercury (a liquid metal)?

  a. water
  b. mercury
  c. none of these

 

 

 

10. Density describes

  a. mass per unit volume.
  b. length per unit time.
  c. volume per liter.
  d. weight per mass.

 

 

11. The natural sciences are divided into ______________ sciences and biological sciences.

   
   
   

 

 

12.  A(n) ______________ is a tested explanation of a broad segment of basic natural phenomena.

   
   
   

 

 

13. A proposed concept or model of nature is tested using the ______________.

   
   

 

14. The three fundamental quantities studied in Chapter 1 are length, mass, and ______________.

   
   
   

15. Motion necessarily involves

  a. a change in velocity.
  b. a change in speed.
  c. a change in direction.
  d. a change in position.
  e. all of these

 

   
   

 

 

16. If an object moves with constant velocity,

  a. its speed is constant.
  b. its direction is constant.
  c. its average speed is constant.
  d. its distance traveled per unit time is constant.
  e. all of these

 

   
   
   

 

17. A freely falling object

  a. has a uniformly increasing velocity.
  b. is unaffected by gravity.
  c. has a uniformly increasing acceleration.
  d. has a uniformly increasing displacement.

 

 

 

18.  A continuous change in position is called ______________.

 

 

 

19.  Dropped objects on the Moon fall at a slower rate than on Earth because of a smaller ______________.

 

 

 

 

 

20. A ball dropped from the top of a building hits the ground 9.0 s later. How high is the building (in meters)?

 

 

 

 

21. The essentials of the first law of motion were initially developed by

  a. Aristotle.
  b. Galileo.
  c. Newton.
  d. an unknown scientist.

 

 

 

 

22. The natural tendency of an object to remain at rest or in motion with a constant velocity is called

  a. an external force.
  b. an unbalanced force.
  c. inertia.
  d. none of these.

 

 

 

 

 

 

23. A mass is accelerated when ______________ acts upon the mass.

  a. a balanced force
  b. any force
  c. no force
  d. an unbalanced force
  e. none of these

 

 

 

 

24. When you push on a stationary object on a horizontal surface and it doesn’t move, what kind of force is most likely opposing your efforts?

  a. Static friction force
  b. Sliding friction force
  c. Lubricant friction force
  d. Gravitational force
  e. Normal Force

 

 

25. It is generally easier to push an object once it is moving than when you are getting it started. This is because

  a. sliding friction is zero.
  b. sliding friction is less than static friction.
  c. static friction is less than sliding friction.
  d. static friction is zero.

 

   
   
   

 

26. The buoyant force of an object is equal to the ______________ of the ______________ it displaces.

  a. mass; fluid
  b. weight; fluid
  c. mass; solid
  d. weight; solid

 

   
   

 

27. Which of the following would be the same for a person on the Moon rather than on Earth?

  a. Maximum jumping height
  b. Weight
  c. The amount of time for an object to fall 2 meters from rest
  d. Mass
  e. Gravitational acceleration

 

 

 

28. Newton’s third law of motion states that the force pair acting on different objects consists of two forces that

  a. are under the influence of gravity.
  b. are equal and in the same direction.
  c. always produce an acceleration.
  d. are equal and in opposite directions.

 

   
   
   
29. According to Newton’s second law, the force required to accelerate an object is equal to

  a. its acceleration divided by its mass.
  b. its mass times the acceleration.
  c. its mass divided by the velocity.
  d. its weight times the velocity.

 

 

 

 

 

30. The total linear momentum of an isolated system of masses remains the same if there are no external ______________ acting on the system.

  a. forces
  b. torques
  c. unbalanced forces
  d. unbalanced torques

 

 

 

31. A change in motion requires a(n) ______________.

 

 

 

32. Work is defined as force times

  a. distance.
  b. time.
  c. parallel distance.
  d. perpendicular distance.

 

   
   
33. The quantity is known as

  a. kinetic energy.
  b. potential energy.
  c. work.
  d. energy.
  e. power.

 

   
   
   

 

 

 

 

 

34. An object has kinetic energy of 324 J. If its speed is 9 m/s, what is its mass?

  a. 8
  b. 36
  c. 1620
  d. 324

 

   
   

 

 

35. The kinetic energy of a pendulum is greatest

  a. when its potential energy is greatest.
  b. at the top of its swing.
  c. at the bottom of its swing.
  d. when its total energy is greatest.

 

 

 

36. The potential energy of a pendulum is least

  a. when its potential energy is greatest.
  b. at the top of its swing.
  c. at the bottom of its swing.
  d. when its total energy is greatest.

 

 

 

37. Which of the following four objects has the greatest kinetic energy?

  a. An object of mass m moving with speed 4v
  b. An object of mass 3m moving with speed 2v
  c. An object of mass 4m moving with speed v
  d. An object of mass 2m moving with speed 3v
  e. None of these; all four objects have the same kinetic energy.

 

 

 

 

38. The energy of position is called

  a. potential energy.
  b. power.
  c. kinetic energy.
  d. heat.

 

 

39. Power is

  a. work divided by time.
  b. velocity multiplied by time.
  c. momentum divided by time.
  d. energy multiplied by time.

 

   
   
   

 

 

40. Currently, in the United States, which fuel has the largest consumption?

  a. Oil
  b. Natural gas
  c. Coal
  d. Nuclear

 

 

 

41. Energy provided directly from Earth’s interior is called

  a. groundwater energy.
  b. geothermal energy.
  c. artesian energy.
  d. thermionic energy.

 

 

 

 

 

42. The product of force times parallel distance is called ______________.

   
   
   

 

 

43. Energy resulting from motion is called ______________.

   
   
   

44. A temperature of degrees 250 Celsius is equivalent to _____ degrees Fahrenheit.

  a. –9.4
  b. 482.0
  c. 121.1
  d. –23.0

 

   
   
   

 

45. Heat transfer that involves mass movement is

  a. temperature.
  b. conduction.
  c. convection.
  d. radiation.

 

 

 

46. The number of molecules in a container is quadrupled and the Kelvin temperature quadrupled. The volume remains unchanged. The new pressure will be how many times greater than the original pressure?

  a. 16
  b. 1
  c. 20
  d. 32

 

   
   
   

 

47. When a material is found to have a definite volume but no definite shape, and when it assumes the shape of the container in which it is placed, what is the phase of the material?

  a. Gas
  b. Liquid
  c. Plasma
  d. Solid

 

   
   
   

 

48. When a material is found to have no definite volume and no definite shape, what is the phase of the material?

  a. Gas
  b. Liquid
  c. Plasma
  d. Solid

 

   
   
   

 

49. The Fahrenheit scale has a ______________ degree size than the Celsius scale.

   
   
   

 

 

50. On bare feet, a tile floor feels colder than a rug because the tile has a greater ______________.

   
   
   

 

 

51. If the volume and the number of molecules remain constant for a gas, a temperature increase causes the pressure to ______________.

 

 

 

52. The first law of thermodynamics states that heat added to a closed system can change the internal energy of the system and/or do ______________.

 

 

 

53. Which of the following characterize(s) a wave?

  a. Wavelength
  b. Amplitude
  c. Period
  d. All of these

 

 

 

54. Wave amplitude is related to

  a. wave velocity.
  b. frequency.
  c. energy.
  d. wavelength.

 

   
   
   

 

 

 

55. Which of the following radiations has the longest wavelength?

  a. Infrared
  b. Visible
  c. Ultraviolet
  d. X-rays

 

 

 

56. Which of the following radiations has the greatest frequency?

  a. Infrared
  b. Visible
  c. Ultraviolet
  d. X-rays

 

 

 

57. Electromagnetic waves are

  a. longitudinal.
  b. reverse.
  c. transverse.
  d. a combination of these.

 

 

 

 

 

58. Light waves travel fastest in

  a. water.
  b. glass.
  c. a vacuum.
  d. air.
  e. none of these; they travel at the same speed in all these media.

 

 

 

59. The region of the electromagnetic spectrum with frequencies just less than those in the visible region is the ______________ region.

  a. infrared
  b. gamma rays
  c. radio waves
  d. microwaves
  e. x-rays

 

 

 

60. Sound is a(n)

  a. longitudinal wave.
  b. electromagnetic wave.
  c. transverse wave.
  d. standing wave.

 

   
   
   

 

 

 

61. Which of the following sound frequencies lie(s) outside the audible range?

  a. 14 Hz
  b. 11 kHz
  c. 2700 Hz
  d. All of these

 

 

 

 

62. A wave is a propagation of ______________.

 

 

 

 

63. The loudness of a sound wave is determined by its ______________.

   
   
   

 

64. When a system is being driven at a natural frequency, it is said to be driven in ______________.

56324

The prompt is: Should women be drafted? It's a fairly flexible research essay. I am allowed to develop around it. Requirement: 8-10 pages long without Bibliography. Double space. Font 12. APA Style. Problem I'm having: The essay I wrote is too short and is not well organized. Please help me to develop the essay and delete the part that's not necessary. The following is only a suggestion. In addition to the points I wrote already, Professor suggested that I can go in depth in the following points as well: All Americans have responsibility. Combat roles can be selected through physical tests. Body strength is depend on individual person, not gender. Israel and some European countries already drafting women. Use them as a model to address the United States's military about drafting females The drafted women and men should benefit with free education, free health insurance, and etc.

It is possible to have cognition without emotion

our task this week is to provide a discussion post of an argument that supports or opposes the following statement:

  • It is possible to have cognition without emotion.

Your argument should convincingly persuade your reader to support or oppose this statement. Be sure your argument contains references to at least three peer-reviewed articles.

Length: 450-500 words

Your response should demonstrate thoughtful consideration of the ideas and concepts presented in the course by providing new thoughts and insights relating directly to this topic. Your response should reflect scholarly writing and current APA standards.

Discuss hazards unique to contract work.

1.. Discuss hazards unique to contract work. Your response must be at least 100 words in length.

 

2. Summarize the training methods and best practices that you would use to provide initial safety orientation training for new hires at a construction company. Explain why you believe the method you chose would be the most effective and how you would test the effectiveness of the training. Your response must be at least 100 words in length

 

3. Compare and contrast three different methods to promote safety within a company and contractor accountability. Include any methods you would use to make sure workers are not discouraged from reporting near misses at the worksite.  Your response must be at least 100 words in length.

 

 

4. Explain the steps you would take to establish an effective safety committee to address the use of personal protective equipment at a construction site. Include a discussion of how you would establish roles and meeting frequency. Discuss how the results of your committee would be communicated to the rest of the employees across a multi-employer work site.  Your response must be at least 100 words in length.

 

 

5. Explain the importance of management commitment to the effectiveness of a safety and health program. List some of the actions that senior management can take to show their commitment to the safety and health program. Explain some negative consequences that can be associated with a lack of management commitment to the safety and health program.  Your response must be at least 100 words in length.

 

6.

ue files a suit against Tipton in a state court. Does the court in Sue’s state have jurisdiction over Tipton? What factors will the court consider?

Sue uses her smartphone to purchase a video security system for her architectural firm from Tipton, Inc., a company that is located in a different state. The system arrives a month after the projected delivery date, is of poor quality, and does not function as advertised. Sue files a suit against Tipton in a state court. Does the court in Sue’s state have jurisdiction over Tipton? What factors will the court consider?
The state in which Sue resides requires that her dispute with Tipton be submitted to mediation or nonbinding arbitration. If the dispute is not resolved, or if either party disagrees with the decision of the mediator or arbitrator, will a court hear the case? Explain

Name at least 4 competencies for giving tests in PA  (

Name at least 4 competencies for giving tests in PA  (offer any personal opinions as well)

2-  Identify 2 key components in scoring and test interpretation

3-  What are some of the most important factors in selecting and administering self-report inventories?  Have any of you been subjected to taking one?

Haptic Device Choices

Pages without title and references.

Research haptics and the technologies used to create a haptic device. Find two different types of haptic devices and learn about the functionality and the differences of each type.

Haptic Device Choices

Next, pick a device in which the haptics of the interface are key to the functionality of the device. Some examples include: MOMO Racing by Logitech; CyberGrasp by Immersion Corporation; Force Feedback2 Joystick by Microsoft; 3D SystemsPhantom Premium; Falcon Haptic Device; or a haptic device used by doctors to practice or perform surgery (these are often found in white papers from research universities).

Assignment Requirements

From your research, discuss what haptics are, provide an overview of the technology that is used to create a haptic device, and describe how it works.

Discuss two different types of haptics devices (such as graspable, wearable, or touchable). List and describe an example of each one. Provide a screenshot of each one. What is the functionality of each type and how do they differ? What industry or functionality has made the most advance from each type of haptic device?
Pick and research a device in which the haptics of the interface are key to the functionality of the device. Some examples include: MOMO Racing by Logitech; CyberGrasp by Immersion Corporation; Force Feedback2 Joystick by Microsoft; 3D SystemsPhantom Premium; Falcon Haptic Device; or a haptic device used by doctors to practice or perform surgery (these are often found in white papers from research universities).

What is the purpose of the device? How does haptics apply to the device? Find a review of the device and provide a screenshot of the device. What do the users say about the device? What appeals to you about the device? Are there any disadvantages to the haptics in the device?

Personal Reflection

Identify a device that you use that has haptic functionality. Describe the device and the haptics in the device. What do you like about the device? What improvements would you like to see in the device? Add a screenshot of your device or one like it.

What is one thing you would like to see implemented as a capability of business analytics in the future?

What is one thing you would like to see implemented as a capability of business analytics in the future? How can your idea be effective in this arena? This can be something that already exists or something that has not yet been created